What explains these initially counterintuitive market reactions? Why were stocks higher two weeks after the collapse of Lehman? And why do stocks initially trade lower once they receive QE from the Fed? This is due to the fact that the market does not necessarily react immediately to liquidity driven catalysts such as these. It took several weeks and a subsequent sequence of events for market mechanisms to fully seize and mass liquidations to commence following the collapse of Lehman Brothers back in 2008. And the liquidity injected by the Fed through QE must work its way through the veins of the financial system for a few weeks before it finally finds its way into capital markets including stocks. Such is the transitional phase we are likely experiencing now with QE3.